I am currently studying the Public Wage Premium in Sri Lanka. I have been looking at the literature on the switching regression and using a endogenous dummy variable model (1=public, 0=private) for wage employees. I then came across a paper by Wooldridge (2008) "Instrumental Variables Estimation of the Average Treatment Effect in the Correlated Random Coefficient Model" and was keen to apply it in my analysis. From this paper, I have a vague idea in my head but I am not sure if I am on the right track and whether it is a feasible approach. I am hoping I could get some advice on modelling it.
Here is my approach, which I'm sure is very flawed at present so I apologize for that:
1. Estimate probit (1=public, 0=private) or two probit regressions (for public and private employees seperately). I am not sure which is more suitable.
probit public age age2 years_in_education gender ethnicity
2. Obtain the predicted probabilities
predict p (say, p_hat)
3. The second stage will use IV to estimate the wage function (where the dummy variable is endogenous)
ivregress 2sls log_wage age age2 years_in_education gender ethnicity (public=father_in_public_sector spouse_in_public_sector p_hat), robust first
If I estimate two probit regressions instead of one, then I would end up with two correction terms for my second step IV (if I understood it correctly).
Does this sound like a sensible approach, or have I completely misunderstood the concepts? Ideally, I wish to employ a switching regression model while controlling for endogeneity of sector choice.
Thank you for the help
Reference:
Woolridge, J. (2008), "Instrumental Variables Estimation of the Average Treatment Effect in the Correlated Random Coefficient Model", Advances in Econometrics, 21, pp. 93 - 116
Here is my approach, which I'm sure is very flawed at present so I apologize for that:
1. Estimate probit (1=public, 0=private) or two probit regressions (for public and private employees seperately). I am not sure which is more suitable.
probit public age age2 years_in_education gender ethnicity
2. Obtain the predicted probabilities
predict p (say, p_hat)
3. The second stage will use IV to estimate the wage function (where the dummy variable is endogenous)
ivregress 2sls log_wage age age2 years_in_education gender ethnicity (public=father_in_public_sector spouse_in_public_sector p_hat), robust first
If I estimate two probit regressions instead of one, then I would end up with two correction terms for my second step IV (if I understood it correctly).
Does this sound like a sensible approach, or have I completely misunderstood the concepts? Ideally, I wish to employ a switching regression model while controlling for endogeneity of sector choice.
Thank you for the help
Reference:
Woolridge, J. (2008), "Instrumental Variables Estimation of the Average Treatment Effect in the Correlated Random Coefficient Model", Advances in Econometrics, 21, pp. 93 - 116
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