Hi,
Am I right to assume that a GLM model with Gaussian family and log link is essentially the same as running an OLS model with a logged dependent variable?
Also, the GLM model I am running uses dummy independent variables. So would it be correct to interpret the following way; a change in x1 from 0 to 1 would produce a [(e^B1)-1] change in y, where B1 is the coefficient on the x1 independent variable?
Thanks,
Ash
Am I right to assume that a GLM model with Gaussian family and log link is essentially the same as running an OLS model with a logged dependent variable?
Also, the GLM model I am running uses dummy independent variables. So would it be correct to interpret the following way; a change in x1 from 0 to 1 would produce a [(e^B1)-1] change in y, where B1 is the coefficient on the x1 independent variable?
Thanks,
Ash
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