By the way what is your take on the first model (1) in the image that I have attached?
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My real doubt is the interpretation of model (1) where only crisis dummy is involved without interaction term. How to interpret that crisis dummy? what does it exactly show?
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My real doubt is the interpretation of model (1) where only crisis dummy is involved without interaction term. How to interpret that crisis dummy? what does it exactly show?
is it that the interpretation of the variables involved in interaction term is two way, on one side it can be interpreted as you said the average impact of PostGFC on dependent variable conditional on X being zero, on the other side coefficient on X represents the average change in dependent variable during the non crisis period.
at least in my case it seems Counterintuitive given the the average value of INCRS (dependent variable) is already found significantly lower than Pre-GFC period from univariate analysis.
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