Hello Community,
for my exam I am working the first time with Stata. In the last weeks I built up my dataset. I am doing a panel time series analysis on EU-regions and try to predict the estimated benefit of the EU-membership (mean within a region) from economic data like average incomeper captia.
There are 185 regions in the final dataset. Every region has up to 12 points in time.
My professor adviced my to use the PCSE-model (xtpcse). Now I have some problems with the interpretation of the results.
Note:
aV = dependent variable
uV = independent variable
What I (think I) now:
What I'm pondering about and searched for hours:
Thank you and greetings from Germany
Rainer Müller
for my exam I am working the first time with Stata. In the last weeks I built up my dataset. I am doing a panel time series analysis on EU-regions and try to predict the estimated benefit of the EU-membership (mean within a region) from economic data like average incomeper captia.
There are 185 regions in the final dataset. Every region has up to 12 points in time.
My professor adviced my to use the PCSE-model (xtpcse). Now I have some problems with the interpretation of the results.
Note:
aV = dependent variable
uV = independent variable
Code:
. xtpcse aV_Transform uV3_GDPpC_percentageEUaverage if aV_n30 < 1, correlation(ar1) pairwise Number of gaps in sample: 26 (note: computations for rho restarted at each gap) (note: estimates of rho outside [-1,1] bounded to be in the range [-1,1]) (note: at least one disturbance covariance assumed 0, no common time periods between panels) Prais-Winsten regression, correlated panels corrected standard errors (PCSEs) Group variable: number Number of obs = 1666 Time variable: year Number of groups = 185 Panels: correlated (unbalanced) Obs per group: min = 1 Autocorrelation: common AR(1) avg = 9.005405 Sigma computed by pairwise selection max = 12 Estimated covariances = 17205 R-squared = 0.5541 Estimated autocorrelations = 1 Wald chi2(1) = 13.11 Estimated coefficients = 2 Prob > chi2 = 0.0003 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Panel-corrected aV_Transform | Coef. Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval] ------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- uV3_GDPpC_percentageEUaverage | .0499767 .0138018 3.62 0.000 .0229257 .0770277 _cons | 64.35796 2.199239 29.26 0.000 60.04753 68.66839 ------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- rho | .5714918 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
- the influence of uV3 is highly significant. Effect is moderat: For every percent more on (average) income in the EU the estimated benefit of the EU-membership increases 0.05 points.
- the constant term means without any given effect of the independent variable (uV3) the dependent var. (aV) would be 64.36. Could one say this is the "average" over time?
- R-squared tells me that the model can explain 55,41 percent of the variance of the dependent variable (aV), which is sort of good as I deal with human behaviour here.
- Wald Chi2 is... good. I guess. Well it's not zero and Prob > chi2 = 0.0003 looks fine to me.
- Covariance: Same here - not zero. Direction seems to fit (more Money = better/higher estimation of EU benefi
What I'm pondering about and searched for hours:
- rho: Is it a correlation coefficient? I know that the Spearman correlation coefficient is also called Spearman's rho. But I also read that in some time series models the rho has nothing to do with Spearman.
- Is my interpretation correct?
- Did I overlook something important?
- And how do I have to interpret rho?
- anything else you think could be important
Thank you and greetings from Germany
Rainer Müller
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