I recently read a paper and the authors run a survey experiment and has 4 groups including a control group.

The author writes the following: the treatment about better responding to economic crises has no systematic effect on exchange rate policy preferences. In addition, the estimated effect from T1 is larger than T2 (F-test

*β*T1 >

*β*T2,

*p*-value = .06).

What I don't understand is, why would the authors use an F-test instead of a one-tailed T-test? Is the result going to be the same? If not, what are some advantages on doing this? Lastly, when they say F-test, does it mean ANOVA?

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