Originally posted by Sebastian Kripfganz
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For instance, x is significant under gmm(x, lag(2 3)) but turns to be insignificant under gmm(x, lag(2 4)) or gmm(x, lag(2 5)). Do you think it makes much sense to say something about the effect of x?
I think if the change in statistical significance is due to the the weak correlation of deeper lags with the current instrumented variable, then perhaps it is safe to say that x has effect on y. Just as what you argued in another post, too deeper lags may be only weakly correlated with the instrumented variable unless the series is persistent.
But if such change in statistical significance is due to other reasons, perhaps we have to say that the effect of x on y is not robust, depending on the use of lag.
In some other cases, instrumented variables may turn to be significant after deeper lags are used.
So is it right to say that experience/intuition or economic theory (if any) are the primary way to decide the depth of lags?
Many thanks again!

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