Hi all. I have read both the following posts regarding regdfe and the constant term (https://www.statalist.org/forums/for...fe-and-predict and https://www.statalist.org/forums/for...-effects-model). I think I understand the basic idea but I want to make sure that I interpret the constants correctly.
I have a model in which I regress Value on Book Value of Equity (an accounting construct) [Value = BVE]. I do this for Type A firms. Each manager has companies which he values and I therefore include manager fixed effects in addition to year fixed effects. I am able to back out the constant as suggested in the posts above. I therefore have a manger fixed effect (for each manager), a year fixed effect (for each year) and an overall constant.
Suppose I have the same managers that value a different type of firm (Type B firms) during the same time period. I use the same approach as above [Value = BVE] and back out the constant term. I therefore again have a manager fixed effect (for each manager), a year fixed effect (for each year) and an overall constant.
My question: Can I compare the constant term of the two models? And therefore conclude that when managers value type A firms the apply a larger (smaller) constant than to type B firms (on average of course)?
I have a model in which I regress Value on Book Value of Equity (an accounting construct) [Value = BVE]. I do this for Type A firms. Each manager has companies which he values and I therefore include manager fixed effects in addition to year fixed effects. I am able to back out the constant as suggested in the posts above. I therefore have a manger fixed effect (for each manager), a year fixed effect (for each year) and an overall constant.
Suppose I have the same managers that value a different type of firm (Type B firms) during the same time period. I use the same approach as above [Value = BVE] and back out the constant term. I therefore again have a manager fixed effect (for each manager), a year fixed effect (for each year) and an overall constant.
My question: Can I compare the constant term of the two models? And therefore conclude that when managers value type A firms the apply a larger (smaller) constant than to type B firms (on average of course)?
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